on 17-10-2016 19:46
on 17-10-2016 19:46
Hi, if someone from the same network (O2) is abroad and calls me,do I also pay for the call or only the caller pays?
Regards,
Victoria.
Solved! Go to Solution.
on 17-10-2016 20:59
on 17-10-2016 20:59
on 17-10-2016 21:02
on 17-10-2016 21:02
on 17-10-2016 21:03
on 17-10-2016 21:03
on 17-10-2016 21:11
on 17-10-2016 21:11
Never thought there was that much confusion
Veritas Numquam Perit
on 17-10-2016 21:13
on 17-10-2016 21:13
on 18-10-2016 03:34
on 18-10-2016 03:34
07-05-2021 14:34 - edited 07-05-2021 14:35
07-05-2021 14:34 - edited 07-05-2021 14:35
OK sorry for being late to the party but the OP still hasnt been answered and the links provided are hopeless.
So for clarity sake say someone in the UK on o2 calls someone in Thailand, for example, does the person in Thailand get charged once they answer it ?
on 07-05-2021 14:36
on 07-05-2021 14:36
@Gratters wrote:So for clarity sake say someone in the UK on o2 calls someone in Thailand, for example, does the person in Thailand get charged ?
Is the person in Thailand roaming on O2 or is the UK person calling a Thai number?
07-05-2021 15:35 - edited 07-05-2021 15:55
07-05-2021 15:35 - edited 07-05-2021 15:55
Whats the answer to both ?
The person in Thailand would have no idea if its another annoying estate agent do you want to sell your house type of call so seems unfair that if they answer a nuisance call they have to pay for it, alternatively it could be a life and death call from a number they don't recognise so they feel compelled to answer it
PS How utterly useless is the automated 'aura' help response ?
on 07-05-2021 23:39
on 07-05-2021 23:39